Normalizing price velocity/volatility with respect to what?
Posted: Tue Jun 19, 2007 4:47 pm
A lot of talk is about how you adjust your position size with respect to a given market's volatility, but I'm wondering if anybody had any ideas on how one might normalize a markets velocity and/or volatility over a given period of time.
My first idea was to take average true range over a given period and divide by the average price during the same period. Commodity X roughly has a range of Y percent each day for the last Z days. Seemed straight forward enough.
The problem is that my historical data (from Pinnacle) is adjusted in a fashion that allows price to go negative. Not only do the negative numbers foul up the calculation, but also very small closing prices result in a very high percentage which isn't "true".
So does anybody have any ideas on a simpler, possibly more robust, way to measure price velocity or volatility and normalize those figures across markets?
My first idea was to take average true range over a given period and divide by the average price during the same period. Commodity X roughly has a range of Y percent each day for the last Z days. Seemed straight forward enough.
The problem is that my historical data (from Pinnacle) is adjusted in a fashion that allows price to go negative. Not only do the negative numbers foul up the calculation, but also very small closing prices result in a very high percentage which isn't "true".
So does anybody have any ideas on a simpler, possibly more robust, way to measure price velocity or volatility and normalize those figures across markets?